- #1
T-O7
- 55
- 0
So I'm trying to prove that the map
[tex]f(x,y,z) = \frac{(x,y)}{1-z}[/tex]
from the unit sphere S^2 to R^2 is injective by the usual means:
[tex]f(x_1,y_1,z_1)=f(x_2,y_2,z_2) \Rightarrow (x_1,y_1,z_1)=(x_2,y_2,z_2)[/tex]
But i can't seem to show it...
I end up with the result that
[tex]\frac{x_1}{x_2}=\frac{y_1}{y_2},\frac{x_1}{x_2}=\frac{1-z_1}{1-z_2}[/tex],
but I'm uncertain as to what this means for points on a circle...help please?
(i have actually already found the inverse map, but i just found it a little frustrating that i couldn't prove injectiveness just straightforwardly like this..)
[tex]f(x,y,z) = \frac{(x,y)}{1-z}[/tex]
from the unit sphere S^2 to R^2 is injective by the usual means:
[tex]f(x_1,y_1,z_1)=f(x_2,y_2,z_2) \Rightarrow (x_1,y_1,z_1)=(x_2,y_2,z_2)[/tex]
But i can't seem to show it...
I end up with the result that
[tex]\frac{x_1}{x_2}=\frac{y_1}{y_2},\frac{x_1}{x_2}=\frac{1-z_1}{1-z_2}[/tex],
but I'm uncertain as to what this means for points on a circle...help please?
(i have actually already found the inverse map, but i just found it a little frustrating that i couldn't prove injectiveness just straightforwardly like this..)