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  1. MHB Craftsman

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    #1
    I have

    $\lim_{{x}\to{0}} lnx \cdot x$

    $x$ approaches 0, and $lnx$ approaches $\infty$.

    How can I reason about this.

    I suppose $x$ approaches 0 more quickly than $lnx$ approaches $\infty$ , therefore it is zero. Is this accurate? How can I prove this.

  2. Pessimist Singularitarian
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    #2
    I would write it as:

    $ \displaystyle L=\lim_{x\to0}\left(\frac{\ln(x)}{\dfrac{1}{x}}\right)$

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