> If you measure it, you can only get +1/2 or -1/2, but you can do the
> measurement only once, so you can't say anything about the original state.
So that's because the measurement itself disturbs the spin?
I also have some more questions about the spin property:
1.) Are up and down...
If I give you a box, completely empty except for one hydrogen atom, could you theoretically measure the spin of its electron to tell me if it is +1/2 or -1/2? If this can be done, how can it be accomplished (at least in theory). Or if the question is complete nonsense, why is that?
(Sorry for...
I wasn't really trying to question Faraday's law at this stage of my limited understanding. My problem was I hadn't read it carefully enough to understand what it was saying. Your answer however has cleared it up for me nicely. Many thanks!
~Paul
I don't understand your question. The problem shows a "uniform" magnetic field shown by the dots on the page. Note that there are dots both inside the loop of wire and outside, and they are uniformly spaced. That is not the same as the field coming out of a bar magnet that is being pushed thru...
Lenz's law
Thanks for your reply.
Ok, yes I'm aware of Lenz's law and I can understand which direction the
induced current goes when you push a magnet into a loop of wire. But this
situation is a bit different. So when the magnetic field in this problem decreases,
it decreases both...
The answer to this question (attached gif) is supposed to be "E".
I can get bL^2/R if I just compute the flux and differentiate to
compute the induced voltage and current, but how does one
figure out that it goes counter-clockwise. Also I'm at a loss to
explain why whatever effects the field...