Well I copied Dale's notation from #18, and he didn't seem to have an issue defining those two. So why shouldn't there be a clear answer which one of the 5 options in #28 is correct?
It's absolutely not uncommon to come up with a theoretical model and then try and find an experiment that either...
Okay. Let's assume a universe with only one spatial dimension for which ##c_+\neq c_-## but they are constant everywhere on the axis. If I now measure wavelength and frequency of two opposite beams at a single place, will I find
##\lambda_+\neq\lambda_-## ?
##f_+\neq f_-## ?
Both 1. and 2. ...
I don't, but in all the threads I read it was always about the speed of light being different for different directions, not about it being different at different places. They all assumed it to be constant for one direction, and so did I.
Is there a difference between a one-way speed of light measurement and a one-direction speed of measurement? Is that where I go wrong? If not, I really don't see it.
I'm getting more and more confused. Is your point that a wavelength measurement cannot be done at a single place, but needs a finite distance (e.g. between diffraction grating and screen)? Or something entirely different?
I think Ibix already answered my question, but I'm curious:
The leaving and reflected beams go opposite directions. Why would ##\lambda_1\cdot f_1## and ##\lambda_2\cdot f_2## not be the one-way speeds of light?
All I read is that the problem is about the synchronization or simultaneity convention. But this is only an issue if the measurements are performed at different places. My two wavelength and frequency measurements would be done at the same place.
I don't have a personal theory at all, I just...
Hi.
According to Wikipedia: The "one-way" speed of light, from a source to a detector, cannot be measured independently of a convention as to how to synchronize the clocks at the source and the detector.
Mid 20th century, the most precise measurements of the speed of light were done using...
If ##A_i## and ##B_i## were QM operators and we were calculating QM expectation values would then the equation
##\langle A_1 B_1+A_1 B_2+A_2 B_1-A_2 B_2\rangle = \langle A_1 B_1 \rangle+\langle A_1 B_2 \rangle+\langle A_2 B_1 \rangle-\langle A_2 B_2 \rangle##
be problematic?
I know that this...
Let's assume two silver atoms get spin-entangled and sent through two Stern-Gerlach apparatuses. I guess atoms are heavy enough for an approximate non-relativistic description where the position expectation value isn't too far off from a classical trajectory (but I might very well be wrong about...
I don't know what I was thinking when I asked the first question (it's right there in Ampère's law).
And what about ##\vec{F}=I\cdot\vec{l}\times\vec{B}##? Can ##I## here be a displacement current?
Hi.
Does displacement current create a magnetic field by Biot-Savart? I googled and found contradictory answers.
Also, in the presence of an external magnetic field, is it meaningful to calculate a Lorentz force acting on displacement current? What does the force actually act on then?