Hi !
I've been thinking this problem a whole and I could not find an answer. I want to solve the following problem: suppose I have N mass particles with absolute coordinates \mathbf{x}_1, \mathbf{x}_2, \ldots, \mathbf{x}_N . Besides, I have the following contraints: for all i=1,2,\ldots,N-1...
Yes, I mean \dfrac{\partial q}{\partial \mathbf{r}} As you know if you do \dfrac{\partial}{\partial \mathbf{r}} both sides you get \dfrac{\partial q}{\partial \mathbf{r}} -\sin q = \dfrac{\hat{\mathbf{k}}}{L} . Solving for \dfrac{\partial q}{\partial \mathbf{r}} you get \dfrac{\partial...
Hi ! I'm trying to inverse a mass matrix so I need to do something like this
\dfrac{q}{\partial \mathbf{r}} where \cos q = \dfrac{\mathbf{r}\cdot \hat{\mathbf{k}}}{r}
However, when \mathbf{r} = \hat{\mathbf{k}} \text{ or } -\hat{\mathbf{k}} I have problems.
¿What can I do...
Hi everyone,
I would like to know if this stament is true or not. I have two variables u,v both of them distributed as normal distribution with mean 0 and variance a^2. Is it true that the expected value of uv is a^2 ?
Thanks
Yes. I do not have an angular potential. And I calculate Lennard Jones potential over all particle pairs, except those that have an angle or a bond.
In fact, in the most simple case, with M chains and 2 particles for every chain, I get the same thing.
In fact, can we only discuss this...